Criminal Law (BNS 2023) MCQs for CLAT PG

CLAT PG Criminal Law (BNS 2023) questions 1-21 of 85, with answer keys and explanations covering general exceptions, homicide, offences against property, women, the State, public order, and the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.

85 questions17 topics1-21 on this page

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Revise core LLB subjects through CLAT PG MCQs, passage-led questions, answer keys, explanations, statutes, and exam-oriented legal principles.

  • Abetment, Common Intention and Joint Liability5
  • Criminal Conspiracy under BNS 20235
  • Criminal Law Reform: Constitutional Rights, DK Basu, and BNSS 20235
  • Dacoity, Robbery, and Organised Crime under BNS 20235
  • Death Penalty - Rarest of Rare Doctrine and Mitigating Circumstances5
  • General Exception: Unsoundness of Mind (Section 22 BNS)5
  • Introduction to BNS 2023 and Key Changes from IPC5
  • Kidnapping and Abduction under BNS 20235
  • Mens Rea and Strict Liability in Criminal Law5
  • Murder and Culpable Homicide: The Distinction5
  • New BNS Offences: Section 69 and Section 103(2) - Deceitful Sex and Mob Lynching5
  • New Offences in BNS: Organised Crime, Mob Lynching, and Terrorism5
  • Rape Law and Section 63 BNS: Consent and the IPC to BNS Evolution5
  • Right of Private Defence under BNS 20235
  • Section 63 BNS: Rape and Consent5
  • Theft and Property Offences under BNS 20235
  • Wrongful Restraint, Confinement and Kidnapping5
Passage or principleBNS 2023 Chapter 1 / Drive material: BNS chapter 1 introduction.pdf

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 came into force on 1st July 2024, replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, which had governed criminal law in India for over 163 years. The BNS represents the most comprehensive reform of India's substantive criminal law since independence. The IPC was drafted during British colonial rule and carried provisions that reflected colonial administrative priorities and Victorian-era social norms. The BNS retains the structure and most offences of the IPC while making several significant changes. The number of sections has been reduced from 511 to 358, achieving rationalisation without loss of substantive content. Several archaic expressions have been modernised: 'lunatic,' 'insane,' and 'idiot' have been replaced by 'person of unsound mind.' Sedition under Section 124A IPC has been deleted and replaced by Section 152 BNS which criminalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, with a focus on specific acts of subversion rather than broadly defined 'disaffection.' The BNS introduces community service as a new form of punishment for minor offences, reflecting a shift towards reformative justice. It also adds new offences that were absent from the IPC: organised crime, petty organised crime, terrorist acts, mob lynching (murder by a group of five or more persons on identity-based grounds), snatching as a specific form of theft, and sexual intercourse by deceitful means. Certain IPC provisions have been deleted: Section 309 (attempt to commit suicide), Section 377 (unnatural offences following Navtej Johar), Section 497 (adultery following Joseph Shine), and Section 124A (sedition following Kedar Nath concerns).

Question 1EasyIntroduction to BNS 2023 and Key Changes from IPC

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 replaced which legislation?

  1. A

    The Code of Criminal Procedure 1973

  2. B

    The Indian Penal Code 1860

  3. C

    The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

  4. D

    The Constitution of India

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The Indian Penal Code 1860

The passage states: 'The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 came into force on 1st July 2024, replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Chapter 1 / Drive material: BNS chapter 1 introduction.pdf

Question 2EasyIntroduction to BNS 2023 and Key Changes from IPC

According to the passage, the BNS replaced which archaic expressions with 'person of unsound mind'?

  1. A

    Culpable homicide and murder

  2. B

    'Lunatic, ' 'insane, ' and 'idiot'

  3. C

    Minor and child

  4. D

    Citizen and person

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. 'Lunatic, ' 'insane, ' and 'idiot'

The passage states: 'Several archaic expressions have been modernised: lunatic, insane, and idiot have been replaced by person of unsound mind.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Chapter 1 / Drive material: BNS chapter 1 introduction.pdf

Question 3MediumIntroduction to BNS 2023 and Key Changes from IPC

The passage describes Section 152 BNS as replacing Section 124A IPC (sedition). How does the passage describe the focus of Section 152 BNS?

  1. A

    Section 152 BNS is identical to sedition in all respects

  2. B

    Section 152 BNS focuses on specific acts of subversion threatening sovereignty, unity and integrity of India rather than broadly defined disaffection

  3. C

    Section 152 BNS is narrower and covers only cross-border threats

  4. D

    Section 152 BNS completely eliminates the concept of protecting national integrity from criminal law

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Section 152 BNS focuses on specific acts of subversion threatening sovereignty, unity and integrity of India rather than broadly defined disaffection

The passage states Section 152 BNS 'criminalises acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India, with a focus on specific acts of subversion rather than broadly defined disaffection.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Chapter 1 / Drive material: BNS chapter 1 introduction.pdf

Question 4MediumIntroduction to BNS 2023 and Key Changes from IPC

Community service as a new form of punishment in the BNS reflects which approach to criminal justice according to the passage?

  1. A

    Deterrent approach

  2. B

    Reformative approach towards justice

  3. C

    Retributive approach

  4. D

    Restorative approach only for property offences

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Reformative approach towards justice

The passage states community service reflects 'a shift towards reformative justice.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Chapter 1 / Drive material: BNS chapter 1 introduction.pdf

Question 5HardIntroduction to BNS 2023 and Key Changes from IPC

According to the passage, which of the following IPC offences was deleted because of a Supreme Court judgment (Navtej Johar)?

  1. A

    Section 309 (attempt to commit suicide)

  2. B

    Section 124A (sedition)

  3. C

    Section 377 (unnatural offences)

  4. D

    Section 497 (adultery)

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Section 377 (unnatural offences)

The passage states: 'Section 377 (unnatural offences following Navtej Johar)' was among the deleted provisions.

Source note: BNS 2023 Chapter 1 / Drive material: BNS chapter 1 introduction.pdf

Passage or principleBNS 2023 / State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George / Drive material LB104

The requirement of a guilty mind, expressed through the Latin maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea, is a foundational principle of criminal liability. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, as under the Indian Penal Code it replaced, most offences specify the required mental state using terms such as 'intentionally,' 'knowingly,' 'fraudulently,' 'dishonestly,' or 'voluntarily.' These words embody varying degrees of culpability, with intention generally denoting the highest level of mental fault and negligence the lowest. The Supreme Court in State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George (AIR 1965 SC 722) addressed the question of when a statute may exclude the requirement of mens rea. In that case, the accused had carried undeclared gold into Indian territory in violation of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act. He contended that he had no knowledge of the notification restricting gold imports. The Court held that the object of the regulatory statute would be defeated if the prosecution were required to prove knowledge of the notification in every case. The test the Court enunciated was contextual: courts must examine the language, subject matter, and purpose of the statutory provision to determine whether mens rea is excluded by necessary implication. Where a provision deals with regulatory or public welfare matters and proof of mental fault would frustrate its purpose, the statute may be treated as imposing strict liability. The corollary is that the general requirement of mens rea remains the rule, and strict liability is the exception, to be established by a careful analysis of legislative intent.

Question 6EasyMens Rea and Strict Liability in Criminal Law

The passage identifies which Latin maxim as the foundational principle for the requirement of mens rea?

  1. A

    Ignorantia juris non excusat

  2. B

    Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

  3. C

    Nemo dat quod non habet

  4. D

    In dubio pro reo

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea

The passage states: 'The requirement of a guilty mind, expressed through the Latin maxim actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea, is a foundational principle of criminal liability.'

Source note: BNS 2023 / State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George / Drive material LB104

Question 7EasyMens Rea and Strict Liability in Criminal Law

In State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George, what was the accused's defence?

  1. A

    He was a foreign national not subject to Indian law

  2. B

    He had no knowledge of the notification restricting gold imports

  3. C

    He claimed the gold was for personal use

  4. D

    He argued the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was unconstitutional

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. He had no knowledge of the notification restricting gold imports

The passage states: 'He contended that he had no knowledge of the notification restricting gold imports.'

Source note: BNS 2023 / State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George / Drive material LB104

Question 8MediumMens Rea and Strict Liability in Criminal Law

According to the passage, the test for determining whether mens rea is excluded in a statute requires courts to examine:

  1. A

    Only the language of the particular section in isolation

  2. B

    The language, subject matter, and purpose of the statutory provision to determine if mens rea is excluded by necessary implication

  3. C

    Whether the offence has resulted in actual harm

  4. D

    Only whether the statute expressly mentions strict liability

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The language, subject matter, and purpose of the statutory provision to determine if mens rea is excluded by necessary implication

The passage states: 'courts must examine the language, subject matter, and purpose of the statutory provision to determine whether mens rea is excluded by necessary implication.'

Source note: BNS 2023 / State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George / Drive material LB104

Question 9MediumMens Rea and Strict Liability in Criminal Law

The passage states that strict liability applies where which conditions are met?

  1. A

    The offence causes physical harm to individuals

  2. B

    The provision deals with regulatory or public welfare matters and proof of mental fault would frustrate the statute's purpose

  3. C

    The accused is a corporation or institution

  4. D

    The offence is committed in a public place

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The provision deals with regulatory or public welfare matters and proof of mental fault would frustrate the statute's purpose

The passage states: 'Where a provision deals with regulatory or public welfare matters and proof of mental fault would frustrate its purpose, the statute may be treated as imposing strict liability.'

Source note: BNS 2023 / State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George / Drive material LB104

Question 10HardMens Rea and Strict Liability in Criminal Law

According to the passage, which of the following best describes the relationship between mens rea and strict liability in Indian criminal law?

  1. A

    Strict liability is the general rule and mens rea is the exception

  2. B

    Mens rea remains the rule and strict liability is the exception, to be established by careful analysis of legislative intent

  3. C

    Both are equally applicable to all criminal offences

  4. D

    Neither applies to regulatory offences

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Mens rea remains the rule and strict liability is the exception, to be established by careful analysis of legislative intent

The passage concludes: 'the general requirement of mens rea remains the rule, and strict liability is the exception, to be established by a careful analysis of legislative intent.'

Source note: BNS 2023 / State of Maharashtra v. Mayer Hans George / Drive material LB104

Passage or principleBNS 2023 Section 22 / Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003)

Section 22 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, corresponding to Section 84 of the Indian Penal Code, provides a complete defence to a person who, at the time of the offence, was incapable of understanding the nature of the act or of knowing that what he was doing was wrong or contrary to law, by reason of unsoundness of mind. This provision is derived from the McNaghten Rules formulated by the English House of Lords in 1843, which established the cognitive test for legal insanity in criminal law. The defence does not depend on the existence of a diagnosed mental illness at any point in time; it requires proof of a specific state of mental incapacity at the precise moment when the act was committed. In Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003) 7 SCC 748, the Supreme Court held that the accused, who suffered from paranoid schizophrenia, was entitled to the benefit of the defence because medical evidence established that his illness at the time of the offence had rendered him incapable of distinguishing right from wrong. The Court emphasised that a mere diagnosis of mental illness does not automatically entitle the accused to the defence; the court must evaluate whether the illness, at the time of the offence, rose to the level of incapacity specified in Section 84 IPC. The legal presumption is one of sanity; the accused bears the burden of establishing the defence of insanity on the balance of probabilities. Critically, the provision covers only those cases of unsoundness of mind where the accused could not understand the nature of the act at all, or could not appreciate its wrongfulness.

Question 11EasyGeneral Exception: Unsoundness of Mind (Section 22 BNS)

Section 22 BNS 2023 provides a complete defence when the accused, at the time of the act, was incapable of:

  1. A

    Remembering what he did during the act

  2. B

    Understanding the nature of the act or knowing that what he was doing was wrong or contrary to law, by reason of unsoundness of mind

  3. C

    Controlling his physical actions due to mental illness

  4. D

    Making rational economic decisions at the time of the offence

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Understanding the nature of the act or knowing that what he was doing was wrong or contrary to law, by reason of unsoundness of mind

The passage states the defence applies when the accused 'was incapable of understanding the nature of the act or of knowing that what he was doing was wrong or contrary to law, by reason of unsoundness of mind.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Section 22 / Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003)

Question 12EasyGeneral Exception: Unsoundness of Mind (Section 22 BNS)

The legal presumption under Section 22 BNS, as stated in the passage, is:

  1. A

    That the accused is insane unless proven otherwise

  2. B

    Proved on the balance of probabilities.

  3. C

    That the prosecution must disprove insanity beyond reasonable doubt

  4. D

    That mental illness automatically leads to acquittal

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Proved on the balance of probabilities.

The passage states: 'The legal presumption is one of sanity; the accused bears the burden of establishing the defence of insanity on the balance of probabilities.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Section 22 / Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003)

Question 13MediumGeneral Exception: Unsoundness of Mind (Section 22 BNS)

In Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003), the Supreme Court was satisfied that the accused was entitled to the Section 84 IPC defence because:

  1. A

    He was diagnosed with schizophrenia years before the offence

  2. B

    Medical evidence established that his illness at the time of the offence had rendered him incapable of distinguishing right from wrong

  3. C

    The prosecution failed to produce any evidence against him

  4. D

    He had been previously acquitted on insanity grounds

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Medical evidence established that his illness at the time of the offence had rendered him incapable of distinguishing right from wrong

The passage states: 'medical evidence established that his illness at the time of the offence had rendered him incapable of distinguishing right from wrong.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Section 22 / Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003)

Question 14MediumGeneral Exception: Unsoundness of Mind (Section 22 BNS)

According to the passage, a mere diagnosis of mental illness does not automatically entitle the accused to the Section 22 BNS defence. What additional condition must be established?

  1. A

    The mental illness must be a permanent condition

  2. B

    The court must evaluate whether the illness, at the precise time of the offence, rose to the level of incapacity specified in the section

  3. C

    The accused must have been hospitalised for the mental illness at some point

  4. D

    The mental illness must have been caused by external factors beyond the accused's control

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The court must evaluate whether the illness, at the precise time of the offence, rose to the level of incapacity specified in the section

The passage states: 'a mere diagnosis of mental illness does not automatically entitle the accused to the defence; the court must evaluate whether the illness, at the time of the offence, rose to the level of incapacity specified in Section 84 IPC.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Section 22 / Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003)

Question 15HardGeneral Exception: Unsoundness of Mind (Section 22 BNS)

The McNaghten Rules, mentioned in the passage as the basis for Section 22 BNS, established which type of test for legal insanity?

  1. A

    A medical test based on psychiatric diagnosis

  2. B

    A cognitive test focused on whether the accused could understand the nature of the act or its wrongfulness at the time of commission

  3. C

    A behavioural test based on the accused's actions before and after the crime

  4. D

    A neurological test requiring brain scan evidence

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A cognitive test focused on whether the accused could understand the nature of the act or its wrongfulness at the time of commission

The passage describes the McNaghten Rules as establishing 'the cognitive test for legal insanity in criminal law' focusing on the accused's capacity at the time of the act.

Source note: BNS 2023 Section 22 / Srikant Anandrao Bhosale v. State of Maharashtra (2003)

Passage or principleBNS 2023 Sections 100-101 / Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC) / State of AP v. Punnayya

The distinction between culpable homicide not amounting to murder and murder is one of the most intricate areas of criminal law under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023. Section 100 BNS defines murder as a form of culpable homicide that falls within one of four specified clauses based on the degree of intent and knowledge. Section 101 BNS defines culpable homicide not amounting to murder as the residual category. The Supreme Court in State of Andhra Pradesh v. R. Punnayya (AIR 1977 SC 45) offered a comprehensive exposition, describing culpable homicide as the genus and murder as the species; every murder is culpable homicide but not every culpable homicide is murder. The gradation turns on the degree of mental culpability with which the killing is effected. In Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC 465), Justice Vivian Bose enunciated the four-part test for murder under Clause Thirdly of Section 300 IPC, now Clause 3 of Section 100 BNS: the injury must have been intentionally inflicted; the accused must have intended to cause that specific injury, not merely some injury; it must be established objectively that the injury was sufficient in the ordinary course of nature to cause death; and whether the injury is so sufficient is a question of medical fact to be proved by expert evidence, not a question of what the accused knew or believed. This test is particularly significant because it allows for a murder conviction even where the accused did not specifically intend death, provided the injury intentionally inflicted was, as a medical matter, sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature.

Question 16EasyMurder and Culpable Homicide: The Distinction

According to the passage, the Supreme Court in State of ap v. Punnayya described the relationship between culpable homicide and murder as:

  1. A

    Murder and culpable homicide are completely independent offences with no overlap

  2. B

    Culpable homicide is the genus and murder is the species; every murder is culpable homicide but not every culpable homicide is murder

  3. C

    Culpable homicide is more serious than murder in all cases

  4. D

    Murder and culpable homicide are distinguished only by the weapon used

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Culpable homicide is the genus and murder is the species; every murder is culpable homicide but not every culpable homicide is murder

The passage states: 'The Supreme Court in State of Andhra Pradesh v. R. Punnayya described culpable homicide as the genus and murder as the species; every murder is culpable homicide but not every culpable homicide is murder.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Sections 100-101 / Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC) / State of AP v. Punnayya

Question 17MediumMurder and Culpable Homicide: The Distinction

Under the Virsa Singh test for Clause 3 of Section 100 BNS (murder by intentional infliction of sufficient injury), whether an injury is 'sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death' is:

  1. A

    A subjective question depending on what the accused believed

  2. B

    An objective question of medical fact to be proved by expert evidence, not what the accused knew or believed

  3. C

    Determined by the court based on common sense

  4. D

    Irrelevant if the accused had intent to kill

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An objective question of medical fact to be proved by expert evidence, not what the accused knew or believed

The passage states: 'whether the injury is so sufficient is a question of medical fact to be proved by expert evidence, not a question of what the accused knew or believed.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Sections 100-101 / Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC) / State of AP v. Punnayya

Question 18MediumMurder and Culpable Homicide: The Distinction

According to the passage, the four-part Virsa Singh test requires that the accused intended to cause:

  1. A

    Death of the victim

  2. B

    That specific injury, not merely some injury; and the injury must objectively be sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death

  3. C

    Permanent disability to the victim

  4. D

    Multiple injuries to the body

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. That specific injury, not merely some injury; and the injury must objectively be sufficient in ordinary course of nature to cause death

The passage states the accused 'must have intended to cause that specific injury, not merely some injury.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Sections 100-101 / Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC) / State of AP v. Punnayya

Question 19HardMurder and Culpable Homicide: The Distinction

The passage states that the Virsa Singh test is particularly significant because it allows a murder conviction even where:

  1. A

    The accused had no intent whatsoever

  2. B

    The accused did not specifically intend death, provided the injury intentionally inflicted was medically sufficient to cause death in ordinary course of nature

  3. C

    The accused was intoxicated at the time of the act

  4. D

    The injury was accidental rather than intentional

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The accused did not specifically intend death, provided the injury intentionally inflicted was medically sufficient to cause death in ordinary course of nature

The passage states: 'This test is particularly significant because it allows for a murder conviction even where the accused did not specifically intend death, provided the injury intentionally inflicted was, as a medical matter, sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Sections 100-101 / Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC) / State of AP v. Punnayya

Question 20HardMurder and Culpable Homicide: The Distinction

The gradation between culpable homicide and murder, according to the passage, turns on:

  1. A

    The nature of the weapon used

  2. B

    The degree of mental culpability with which the killing is effected

  3. C

    Whether the accused has prior criminal convictions

  4. D

    Whether the victim survived initially after the attack

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The degree of mental culpability with which the killing is effected

The passage states: 'The gradation turns on the degree of mental culpability with which the killing is effected.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Sections 100-101 / Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab (AIR 1958 SC) / State of AP v. Punnayya

Passage or principleBNS 2023 Sections 34-44 / Deo Narain v. State of UP / James Martin v. State of Kerala

The right of private defence under Sections 34 to 44 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (corresponding to Sections 96 to 106 of the Indian Penal Code) is a codified right permitting individuals to protect themselves, their family members, and their property from unlawful aggression without recourse to public authorities, where such recourse is not possible. The right arises when there is a reasonable apprehension of an attack; it does not require an actual attack to have occurred, but the apprehension must be reasonable and objectively grounded, not merely a subjective fear or suspicion. Section 36 BNS places important limitations on the right: it is not available where there is time to seek the protection of public authorities, and it cannot be exercised against acts of public servants acting in good faith under colour of their office, even if those acts are not strictly legal. The right is defensive and not retributive; as the Supreme Court observed in James Martin v. State of Kerala (2004) 2 SCC 203, the right of private defence is not a licence to kill or to inflict punishment. In Deo Narain v. State of UP (AIR 1973 SC 473), the Court held that the force used in exercising the right must be proportionate to the threat apprehended and no more than is necessary for the purpose of defence. The right ceases when the danger has passed; force continued after the danger has ended is retaliation, not private defence. Section 37 BNS extends the right to causing death only in the specific circumstances listed therein, including reasonable apprehension of death, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, or acid attack.

Question 21EasyRight of Private Defence under BNS 2023

According to the passage, the right of private defence arises when:

  1. A

    An actual attack has definitely occurred

  2. B

    There is a reasonable apprehension of an attack, which must be objectively grounded, not merely subjective fear or suspicion

  3. C

    A person has already been physically hurt

  4. D

    A police officer has confirmed there is a threat

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. There is a reasonable apprehension of an attack, which must be objectively grounded, not merely subjective fear or suspicion

The passage states: 'The right arises when there is a reasonable apprehension of an attack; it does not require an actual attack to have occurred, but the apprehension must be reasonable and objectively grounded.'

Source note: BNS 2023 Sections 34-44 / Deo Narain v. State of UP / James Martin v. State of Kerala