Constitutional Law MCQs for CLAT PG

CLAT PG Constitutional Law questions 1-25 of 100, with answer keys and explanations covering fundamental rights, federalism, Parliament, constitutional bodies, judicial review, emergency powers, and writs.

100 questions20 topics1-25 on this page

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Revise core LLB subjects through CLAT PG MCQs, passage-led questions, answer keys, explanations, statutes, and exam-oriented legal principles.

  • Anti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule5
  • Article 14 - Right to Equality5
  • Article 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression5
  • Article 21 and Maneka Gandhi5
  • Basic Structure Doctrine5
  • Constitutional Amendments - Article 3685
  • Directive Principles of State Policy5
  • Doctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism5
  • Freedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices5
  • Judicial Independence and Collegium System5
  • Parliamentary Privileges - Article 1055
  • Preamble and Constitutional Vision5
  • President's Rule - Article 356 and S.R. Bommai5
  • Reservation - Article 16 and Indra Sawhney5
  • Reservation - Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (Mandal Case)5
  • Right to Privacy - Article 21 and Technology5
  • Right to Privacy - Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)5
  • Secularism in the Indian Constitution5
  • Separation of Powers and Judicial Independence5
  • Writs and Article 32 - Constitutional Remedies5
Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.2 / Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993)

The anti-defection law was introduced into the Constitution by the Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985, which inserted the Tenth Schedule. The law was enacted in response to rampant floor-crossing by legislators - the phenomenon of elected representatives switching political allegiances, often for personal gain - which had destabilised governments and undermined the mandate of voters. The Tenth Schedule provides for the disqualification of a member of Parliament or a State Legislature on the ground of defection from the political party which set up the member's candidature. A member is deemed to have defected if he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party or votes or abstains from voting in the legislature contrary to the direction issued by his party. The power to decide questions of disqualification on the ground of defection is vested in the Speaker or Chairman of the respective House, whose decision shall be final. The constitutional validity of the Tenth Schedule was challenged in Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993). A five-judge bench upheld the anti-defection law by a majority of 3:2, holding that it furthers the constitutional objectives of stable government and faithful implementation of voters' mandates. However, the Court struck down Paragraph 7 of the Schedule, which had barred courts from reviewing the Speaker's decision, as it was in the nature of an amendment to Articles 136, 226 and 227 and had not been ratified by States as required. The Court held that the Speaker's decisions are subject to judicial review on limited grounds including jurisdictional error, mala fides, violation of natural justice and perversity.

Question 1EasyAnti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule

The anti-defection law was introduced into the Constitution by which Amendment?

  1. A

    42nd Constitutional Amendment

  2. B

    44th Constitutional Amendment

  3. C

    52nd Constitutional Amendment

  4. D

    61st Constitutional Amendment

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. 52nd Constitutional Amendment

The passage states 'the Constitution (52nd Amendment) Act, 1985, which inserted the Tenth Schedule.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993)

Question 2EasyAnti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule

Under the Tenth Schedule, a member is deemed to have defected if:

  1. A

    He criticises the government's policy in public

  2. B

    He files a nomination as an independent candidate

  3. C

    He voluntarily gives up party membership or votes contrary to party direction

  4. D

    He is convicted of any offence by a court

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. He voluntarily gives up party membership or votes contrary to party direction

The passage states 'A member is deemed to have defected if he voluntarily gives up his membership...or votes or abstains from voting...contrary to the direction issued by his party.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993)

Question 3MediumAnti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule

In Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993), what was the ratio of the bench that upheld the Tenth Schedule?

  1. A

    5:0 - unanimous

  2. B

    4:1

  3. C

    3:2

  4. D

    2:3 - struck it down

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. 3:2

The passage states 'a five-judge bench upheld the anti-defection law by a majority of 3:2.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993)

Question 4HardAnti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule

Which paragraph of the Tenth Schedule was struck down in Kihota Hollohon, and why?

  1. A

    Paragraph 2 - for violating Article 19(1)(a)

  2. B

    Paragraph 5 - for taking away the right to vote

  3. C

    Paragraph 7 - for barring judicial review, as it required State ratification which was not obtained

  4. D

    Paragraph 3 - for allowing splits of one-third members

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Paragraph 7 - for barring judicial review, as it required State ratification which was not obtained

The passage states 'the Court struck down Paragraph 7 of the Schedule, which had barred courts from reviewing the Speaker's decision, as it...had not been ratified by States as required.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993)

Question 5MediumAnti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule

According to the passage, the Speaker's decisions on disqualification are subject to judicial review on which grounds?

  1. A

    On all grounds as in any ordinary civil case

  2. B

    On no grounds - the decision is absolutely final

  3. C

    On limited grounds including jurisdictional error, mala fides, violation of natural justice and perversity

  4. D

    Only on grounds of procedural irregularity, not merits

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. On limited grounds including jurisdictional error, mala fides, violation of natural justice and perversity

The passage states 'the Speaker's decisions are subject to judicial review on limited grounds including jurisdictional error, mala fides, violation of natural justice and perversity.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / Kihota Hollohon v. Zachilhu (1993)

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.2 / E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees to every person equality before the law and equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The expression 'equality before the law' is a negative concept importing the absence of any special privilege in favour of any individual, while 'equal protection of the laws' is a positive concept requiring the State to give equal treatment to persons in equal circumstances. The traditional understanding of Article 14 permitted reasonable classification by the State for legislative purposes, subject to the twin tests: first, that the classification is founded on an intelligible differentia which distinguishes persons grouped together from those left out; and second, that this differentia must have a rational relation to the object sought to be achieved by the statute in question. In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974), the Supreme Court significantly expanded the scope of Article 14. Justice Bhagwati, speaking for a majority, enunciated the new dimension of equality, holding that equality is a dynamic concept with many aspects and facets and cannot be imprisoned within traditional limits. The Court held that Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness and equality of treatment. From a positivist point of view, equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies; one belongs to the rule of law in a republic while the other belongs to the whim and caprice of an absolute monarch. Where an act is arbitrary, it is implicit in it that it is unequal both according to political logic and constitutional law and is therefore violative of Article 14. This anti-arbitrariness doctrine has since been applied by the Supreme Court to strike down State actions that, though formally classified, are in substance arbitrary and unreasonable.

Question 6EasyArticle 14 - Right to Equality

According to the passage, 'equality before the law' under Article 14 is described as:

  1. A

    A positive concept requiring equal treatment

  2. B

    A negative concept importing absence of special privilege

  3. C

    An absolute guarantee of identical treatment

  4. D

    A directive principle enforceable through courts

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A negative concept importing absence of special privilege

The passage clearly states 'equality before the law is a negative concept importing the absence of any special privilege.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Question 7EasyArticle 14 - Right to Equality

The twin tests for reasonable classification under Article 14 as described in the passage require:

  1. A

    The classification to be approved by the President and to serve a national purpose

  2. B

    An intelligible differentia and a rational relation of that differentia to the object of the law

  3. C

    The classification to be based on economic criteria only

  4. D

    The classification to be explicitly mentioned in the Constitution

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An intelligible differentia and a rational relation of that differentia to the object of the law

The passage states: 'intelligible differentia...and second, this differentia must have a rational relation to the object sought to be achieved.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Question 8MediumArticle 14 - Right to Equality

In E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu, Justice Bhagwati held that Article 14:

  1. A

    Is limited to formal equality before courts of law

  2. B

    Strikes at arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness

  3. C

    Applies only to criminal proceedings

  4. D

    Can be restricted during a national emergency

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Strikes at arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness

The passage states 'Article 14 strikes at arbitrariness in State action and ensures fairness and equality of treatment.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Question 9MediumArticle 14 - Right to Equality

According to the passage, from a positivist perspective, equality and arbitrariness are described as:

  1. A

    Complementary concepts in a democracy

  2. B

    Sworn enemies - equality belongs to rule of law, arbitrariness to absolute monarchy

  3. C

    Two sides of the same principle of governance

  4. D

    Irrelevant to constitutional analysis

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Sworn enemies - equality belongs to rule of law, arbitrariness to absolute monarchy

The passage states: 'equality and arbitrariness are sworn enemies; one belongs to the rule of law in a republic while the other belongs to the whim and caprice of an absolute monarch.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Question 10HardArticle 14 - Right to Equality

Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the passage regarding the scope of Article 14 after E.P. Royappa?

  1. A

    Article 14 now covers only discriminatory legislation, not executive actions

  2. B

    Article 14 permits all State classification provided it serves some purpose

  3. C

    Article 14 can now be used to strike down State actions that are arbitrary even if formally classified

  4. D

    Article 14 was weakened by the Royappa judgment

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Article 14 can now be used to strike down State actions that are arbitrary even if formally classified

The passage states the anti-arbitrariness doctrine 'has since been applied by the Supreme Court to strike down State actions that, though formally classified, are in substance arbitrary.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.2 / E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu (1974)

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.3 / Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950)

Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression. This right is available only to citizens, not to corporations or foreigners. The right is not absolute; Article 19(2) permits the State to impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom in the interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, or incitement to an offence. Any restriction must satisfy the test of reasonableness - both in content and in procedure. In Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950), the Supreme Court held that freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of propagation of ideas, and that the press, as the vehicle of expression, is directly protected. A restriction on the circulation of a newspaper would directly amount to a restriction on freedom of speech. The Court struck down the law as it did not fall within any of the grounds in Article 19(2). The scope of freedom of speech has been progressively expanded. In Sakal Papers (P) Ltd. v. Union of India (1962), the Court held that the freedom of a citizen to publish his thoughts through newspapers is directly protected by Article 19(1)(a). The right to know, the right to receive information, and the right to communicate information and ideas without interference have been read into Article 19(1)(a). The Supreme Court in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015) struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act as unconstitutional for imposing vague and overbroad restrictions on online speech that fell outside the eight grounds enumerated under Article 19(2), and for failing to satisfy the test of reasonableness.

Question 11EasyArticle 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression

According to the passage, the right under Article 19(1)(a) is available to:

  1. A

    All persons including foreigners within India

  2. B

    All citizens only

  3. C

    All citizens and registered companies

  4. D

    All residents of India regardless of citizenship

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. All citizens only

The passage states: 'Article 19(1)(a)...guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression. This right is available only to citizens, not to corporations or foreigners.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950)

Question 12EasyArticle 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression

In Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras, the Supreme Court held that a restriction on the circulation of a newspaper amounts to:

  1. A

    A valid regulation of trade under the State list

  2. B

    A direct restriction on freedom of speech protected under Article 19(1)(a)

  3. C

    A reasonable restriction permitted under Article 19(2)

  4. D

    An administrative measure not subject to judicial review

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A direct restriction on freedom of speech protected under Article 19(1)(a)

The passage states 'A restriction on the circulation of a newspaper would directly amount to a restriction on freedom of speech.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950)

Question 13MediumArticle 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression

In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), Section 66A of the it Act was struck down because:

  1. A

    It violated the right to privacy under Article 21

  2. B

    It imposed vague restrictions falling outside the eight grounds under Article 19(2) and failed the test of reasonableness

  3. C

    It was not passed by a special majority in Parliament

  4. D

    The Supreme Court lacked jurisdiction to review it

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. It imposed vague restrictions falling outside the eight grounds under Article 19(2) and failed the test of reasonableness

The passage states Section 66A was struck down for 'imposing vague and overbroad restrictions...that fell outside the eight grounds enumerated under Article 19(2), and for failing to satisfy the test of reasonableness.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950)

Question 14MediumArticle 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression

Which of the following grounds for restriction under Article 19(2) is mentioned in the passage?

  1. A

    Economic security of the State

  2. B

    Right to education

  3. C

    Contempt of court

  4. D

    Environmental protection

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Contempt of court

The passage lists 'contempt of court' as one of the grounds in Article 19(2).

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950)

Question 15EasyArticle 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression

Based on the passage, which of the following rights has been read into Article 19(1)(a) by the Supreme Court?

  1. A

    Right to bear arms

  2. B

    Right to receive information

  3. C

    Right to employment

  4. D

    Right to housing

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Right to receive information

The passage states 'The right to know, the right to receive information...have been read into Article 19(1)(a).'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Romesh Thappar v. State of Madras (1950)

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.3 / Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Article 21 of the Constitution provides that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. For many years following A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras (1950), the Supreme Court interpreted Article 21 narrowly, holding that the Articles dealing with different fundamental rights operated in distinct fields and were mutually exclusive. This meant that as long as a law prescribed some procedure for deprivation of life or liberty, it was valid even if the procedure was arbitrary or unreasonable. The landmark transformation came in Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978), where a seven-judge bench overruled the Gopalan approach. The Court held that the various fundamental rights are not mutually exclusive watertight compartments; they overlap, and it is not correct to hold that a law affecting one right is to be tested with reference to that right alone. The Court further held that the procedure prescribed by law for depriving a person of his life or personal liberty must be reasonable, fair and just - and not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive. Justice Bhagwati observed that Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not to be read in isolation but must be read together to form a golden triangle of fundamental rights. In consequence, any law that deprives a person of life or liberty must now pass three tests simultaneously: it must be a valid law (Article 13), the procedure it prescribes must be fair and reasonable (Article 21), and it must not violate the guarantees in Articles 14 and 19. The right to life has subsequently been interpreted expansively to include the right to live with dignity, the right to livelihood, the right to health, the right to education, and the right to a clean environment.

Question 16EasyArticle 21 and Maneka Gandhi

Before Maneka Gandhi, how did the Supreme Court interpret the relationship between different fundamental rights under A.K. Gopalan?

  1. A

    As forming a unified, inseparable whole

  2. B

    As overlapping rights requiring joint application

  3. C

    As mutually exclusive and operating in distinct fields

  4. D

    As applicable only to citizens, not foreigners

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. As mutually exclusive and operating in distinct fields

The passage states that under A.K. Gopalan the Court held that the Articles dealing with different fundamental rights 'operated in distinct fields and were mutually exclusive.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Question 17EasyArticle 21 and Maneka Gandhi

According to the passage, after Maneka Gandhi, the procedure for depriving a person of life or liberty must be:

  1. A

    Merely prescribed by any legislation, however framed

  2. B

    Approved by the President before implementation

  3. C

    Reasonable, fair and just - not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive

  4. D

    Ratified by both Houses of Parliament

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Reasonable, fair and just - not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive

The passage states the procedure 'must be reasonable, fair and just - and not arbitrary, fanciful or oppressive.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Question 18MediumArticle 21 and Maneka Gandhi

The 'golden triangle' of fundamental rights mentioned in the passage refers to:

  1. A

    Articles 12, 13 and 14

  2. B

    Articles 14, 19 and 21

  3. C

    Articles 19, 21 and 32

  4. D

    Articles 14, 21 and 32

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Articles 14, 19 and 21

Justice Bhagwati observed that 'Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not to be read in isolation but must be read together to form a golden triangle.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Question 19MediumArticle 21 and Maneka Gandhi

According to the passage, after Maneka Gandhi, a law depriving a person of life or liberty must pass how many simultaneous tests?

  1. A

    One - it must be a valid law

  2. B

    Two - validity and reasonable procedure

  3. C

    Three - valid law, fair procedure, and compliance with Articles 14 and 19

  4. D

    Four - including ratification by states

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Three - valid law, fair procedure, and compliance with Articles 14 and 19

The passage lists three tests: valid law (Article 13), fair procedure (Article 21), and compliance with Articles 14 and 19.

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Question 20HardArticle 21 and Maneka Gandhi

Which of the following rights is mentioned in the passage as having been read into Article 21 by the Supreme Court after Maneka Gandhi?

  1. A

    Right to vote in elections

  2. B

    Right to form political parties

  3. C

    Right to livelihood

  4. D

    Right to bear arms

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Right to livelihood

The passage states the right to life 'has subsequently been interpreted expansively to include the right to live with dignity, the right to livelihood...'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.1 / Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

The Constitution of India is not merely a legal document conferring powers; it is a social document embodying principles that govern the exercise of those powers. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a thirteen-judge bench of the Supreme Court by a majority of 7:6 held that while Parliament possesses the widest power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, this power does not extend to altering or destroying the basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution. The majority identified certain features as forming part of this basic structure - these include the supremacy of the Constitution, the republican and democratic form of government, the secular character of the Constitution, separation of powers between the legislature, executive and judiciary, and the federal character of the Constitution. The doctrine was further affirmed and applied in Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980), where the Supreme Court struck down certain clauses of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 on the ground that they damaged the basic structure of the Constitution. The Court in Minerva Mills specifically held that harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is itself an essential element of the basic structure. Parliament cannot, under the garb of amendment, vest in itself unlimited and unchecked power, for a limited government operating under a Constitution is itself a component of the basic structure.

Question 21EasyBasic Structure Doctrine

According to the passage, in Kesavananda Bharati the Supreme Court held that Parliament's power under Article 368:

  1. A

    Is absolute and unlimited

  2. B

    Cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution

  3. C

    Can abrogate Fundamental Rights completely

  4. D

    Is subject only to presidential approval

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution

The passage states the majority held that Parliament's amending power does not extend to altering or destroying the basic structure.

Source note: MP Jain Ch.1 / Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Question 22EasyBasic Structure Doctrine

Which of the following is identified in the passage as part of the basic structure of the Constitution?

  1. A

    Uniform Civil Code

  2. B

    Right to Property

  3. C

    Separation of powers

  4. D

    Reservation for backward classes

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Separation of powers

The passage explicitly lists separation of powers between legislature, executive and judiciary as part of the basic structure.

Source note: MP Jain Ch.1 / Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Question 23MediumBasic Structure Doctrine

In Minerva Mills, clauses of which Constitutional Amendment were struck down?

  1. A

    24th Amendment

  2. B

    38th Amendment

  3. C

    42nd Amendment

  4. D

    44th Amendment

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. 42nd Amendment

The passage states that in Minerva Mills, certain clauses of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 were struck down.

Source note: MP Jain Ch.1 / Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Question 24MediumBasic Structure Doctrine

The passage states that the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills specifically held that which of the following is an essential element of the basic structure?

  1. A

    Right to property

  2. B

    Harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

  3. C

    Parliamentary sovereignty

  4. D

    Judicial supremacy over all other organs

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

The passage expressly states 'harmony between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is itself an essential element of the basic structure.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.1 / Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)

Question 25HardBasic Structure Doctrine

Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the relationship between a Constitution and the basic structure doctrine?

  1. A

    The Constitution merely lists powers with no limitation on their exercise

  2. B

    A limited government operating under a Constitution is itself a component of the basic structure

  3. C

    The basic structure doctrine applies only to constitutional amendments, not ordinary legislation

  4. D

    The doctrine was created by the 42nd Amendment

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A limited government operating under a Constitution is itself a component of the basic structure

The passage concludes: 'a limited government operating under a Constitution is itself a component of the basic structure.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.1 / Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973)