BSA MCQs for CLAT PG, Page 2

CLAT PG BSA questions 24-46 of 70, with answer keys and explanations covering relevancy, admissions, confessions, electronic evidence, burden of proof, presumptions, witnesses, and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam.

70 questions14 topics24-46 on this page

Topics in this subject

Revise core LLB subjects through CLAT PG MCQs, passage-led questions, answer keys, explanations, statutes, and exam-oriented legal principles.

  • Accomplice Evidence - Section 138 BSA 20235
  • Burden of Proof - Sections 104-108 BSA 20235
  • Burden of Proof and Special Presumptions - Sections 104-120 BSA 20235
  • Confession and Discovery of Facts - Sections 22-25 BSA and Key Cases5
  • Confessions and Discovery of Facts - Sections 22-25 BSA5
  • Dying Declaration - Section 26(1) BSA 20235
  • Electronic Evidence - Sections 57, 63 BSA and Certificate Requirement5
  • Estoppel - Sections 121-123 BSA 2023 and Promissory Estoppel5
  • Introduction to BSA 2023 - Key Changes from IEA 18725
  • Oral Evidence and Exclusion by Documentary Evidence - Sections 50, 94-95 BSA5
  • Presumptions under BSA 2023 - Sections 115-1205
  • Privilege under BSA 2023 - Professional Communications and State Privilege5
  • Relevancy vs Admissibility and Res Gestae - Sections 3, 6-8 BSA 20235
  • Witnesses - Hostile Witness, Accomplice, Single Witness - Sections 138, 157, 139 BSA 20235
Passage or principleBSA 2023 Section 138 / Bhuboni Sahu v. The King / Section 119 Illustration (b)

Section 138 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 (corresponding to Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872) provides that an accomplice shall be a competent witness against an accused person, and that a conviction is not illegal if it proceeds upon the uncorroborated testimony of an accomplice. Section 138 BSA must be read alongside Section 119 Illustration (b) BSA which provides that the court may presume that an accomplice is unworthy of credit unless he is corroborated in material particulars. The combined effect is that while there is no legal bar to convicting on the uncorroborated evidence of an accomplice, as a rule of prudence courts require corroboration in material particulars. In Bhuboni Sahu v. The King (AIR 1949 PC 257), the Privy Council elaborated the principles applicable to accomplice evidence: an accomplice is likely to be untruthful because he has a motive to minimise his own guilt, he hopes for pardon, and he may be generally dishonest. The corroboration must be independent of the accomplice's testimony and must identify the accused in connection with the crime, not merely confirm that the crime was committed. An important corollary is that one accomplice cannot corroborate another, because tainted evidence does not lose its taint by repetition. The distinction between an accomplice who becomes an approver (after being granted pardon under Section 343 BNSS 2023) and a co-accused is significant: the co-accused's confession under Section 24 BSA can only be used to corroborate other evidence and cannot form the primary basis of conviction against the other accused.

Question 24HardAccomplice Evidence - Section 138 BSA 2023

The corroboration required for accomplice evidence must:

  1. A

    Be provided by another accomplice

  2. B

    Be independent of the accomplice's testimony and must identify the accused in connection with the crime, not merely confirm that the crime was committed

  3. C

    Be documentary evidence only

  4. D

    Be provided by the police who investigated the case

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Be independent of the accomplice's testimony and must identify the accused in connection with the crime, not merely confirm that the crime was committed

The passage states: 'The corroboration must be independent of the accomplice's testimony and must identify the accused in connection with the crime, not merely confirm that the crime was committed.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Section 138 / Bhuboni Sahu v. The King / Section 119 Illustration (b)

Question 25HardAccomplice Evidence - Section 138 BSA 2023

The distinction between an approver and a co-accused under BSA 2023 is that:

  1. A

    They have identical evidentiary status

  2. B

    The co-accused's confession under Section 24 BSA can only corroborate other evidence and cannot form the primary basis of conviction; the approver (pardoned accomplice) is a competent prosecution witness whose testimony can be the basis of conviction with corroboration

  3. C

    Co-accused testimony is never admissible

  4. D

    An approver's evidence is automatically less reliable than a co-accused's confession

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The co-accused's confession under Section 24 BSA can only corroborate other evidence and cannot form the primary basis of conviction; the approver (pardoned accomplice) is a competent prosecution witness whose testimony can be the basis of conviction with corroboration

The passage states: 'the co-accused's confession under Section 24 BSA can only be used to corroborate other evidence and cannot form the primary basis of conviction against the other accused.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Section 138 / Bhuboni Sahu v. The King / Section 119 Illustration (b)

Passage or principleBSA 2023 Sections 104-108 / Vijayee Singh v. State of UP / Sher Singh v. State of Haryana

The allocation of the burden of proof is a fundamental aspect of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. Section 104 BSA (corresponding to Section 101 IEA) establishes the general rule: whoever desires a court to give judgment on the basis of certain facts must prove those facts. The burden rests on the party who asserts the affirmative, based on the principle that it is easier to prove an affirmative than a negative. In criminal proceedings, the burden always rests on the prosecution to prove the charge beyond reasonable doubt; the accused is presumed innocent. Section 108 BSA (Section 105 IEA) creates a specific exception: when the accused claims the benefit of any exception under the BNS 2023 (such as insanity or private defence), the burden of proving the existence of circumstances bringing the case within the exception lies on the accused. The court shall presume the absence of such circumstances. The accused need only prove the exception on the balance of probabilities, not beyond reasonable doubt. In addition, Section 118 BSA (Section 113B IEA) creates a mandatory statutory presumption in dowry death cases: when it is shown that soon before the death the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with demand for dowry, the court SHALL presume that the accused caused the dowry death. Sher Singh v. State of Haryana (2015) 3 SCC 724 interpreted the word 'shown' in Section 113B IEA (now Section 118 BSA) to mean 'proved on the balance of probabilities' and held that once this initial burden is discharged, the mandatory presumption kicks in and the accused bears the burden of rebutting it beyond reasonable doubt.

Question 26EasyBurden of Proof - Sections 104-108 BSA 2023

Under Section 104 BSA 2023, the burden of proof rests on:

  1. A

    Whoever has more resources to prove the case

  2. B

    The party asserting the right or liability bears the burden.

  3. C

    Always on the defendant in all cases

  4. D

    The party who files the case first

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The party asserting the right or liability bears the burden.

The passage states: 'Section 104 BSA...establishes the general rule: whoever desires a court to give judgment on the basis of certain facts must prove those facts. The burden rests on the party who asserts the affirmative.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 104-108 / Vijayee Singh v. State of UP / Sher Singh v. State of Haryana

Question 27MediumBurden of Proof - Sections 104-108 BSA 2023

Under Section 108 BSA, when the accused claims an exception under BNS 2023, the standard of proof required from the accused is:

  1. A

    Beyond reasonable doubt

  2. B

    Proved on the balance of probabilities.

  3. C

    No burden; the prosecution must disprove the exception

  4. D

    Conclusive proof

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Proved on the balance of probabilities.

The passage states: 'The accused need only prove the exception on the balance of probabilities, not beyond reasonable doubt.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 104-108 / Vijayee Singh v. State of UP / Sher Singh v. State of Haryana

Question 28MediumBurden of Proof - Sections 104-108 BSA 2023

Section 118 BSA creates a presumption in dowry death cases that is described in the passage as:

  1. A

    Discretionary ('may presume')

  2. B

    Mandatory ('shall presume') once it is shown that the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with dowry demand soon before her death

  3. C

    Applicable only in cases involving registered marriages

  4. D

    Only applicable if the death occurred within one year of marriage

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Mandatory ('shall presume') once it is shown that the woman was subjected to cruelty or harassment in connection with dowry demand soon before her death

The passage states: 'Section 118 BSA...creates a mandatory statutory presumption in dowry death cases...the court SHALL presume that the accused caused the dowry death.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 104-108 / Vijayee Singh v. State of UP / Sher Singh v. State of Haryana

Question 29HardBurden of Proof - Sections 104-108 BSA 2023

In Sher Singh v. State of Haryana (2015), the Supreme Court interpreted 'shown' in Section 113B IEA (Section 118 BSA) to mean:

  1. A

    Proved beyond reasonable doubt by the prosecution

  2. B

    Proved on the balance of probabilities.

  3. C

    Merely alleged by the prosecution

  4. D

    Proved by the accused

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Proved on the balance of probabilities.

The passage states: 'Sher Singh v. State of Haryana (2015)...interpreted the word shown in Section 113B IEA (now Section 118 BSA) to mean proved on the balance of probabilities...once this initial burden is discharged, the mandatory presumption kicks in and the accused bears the burden of rebutting it beyond reasonable doubt.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 104-108 / Vijayee Singh v. State of UP / Sher Singh v. State of Haryana

Question 30EasyBurden of Proof - Sections 104-108 BSA 2023

The passage states that in criminal proceedings, the general burden of proof always rests on:

  1. A

    Alternately on prosecution and defence

  2. B

    The prosecution must prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

  3. C

    The accused to prove innocence

  4. D

    The court to determine independently

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The prosecution must prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt.

The passage states: 'In criminal proceedings, the burden always rests on the prosecution to prove the charge beyond reasonable doubt; the accused is presumed innocent.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 104-108 / Vijayee Singh v. State of UP / Sher Singh v. State of Haryana

Passage or principleBSA 2023 Sections 50, 94-95 / Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC)

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 maintains the Best Evidence Rule through complementary provisions. Section 50 BSA (corresponding to Section 60 IEA) requires that oral evidence must in all cases be direct: if the fact was seen, the witness must have seen it; if it was heard, the witness must have heard it. This section establishes the directness requirement for testimonial evidence and by implication the hearsay exclusion rule, since a witness cannot testify to what someone else told him. Section 94 BSA (corresponding to Section 91 IEA) embodies the Best Evidence Rule in relation to documentary evidence: when the terms of a contract, grant, or disposition of property have been reduced to writing, or any matter is required by law to be in writing, those terms can only be proved by the document itself or by permissible secondary evidence. Oral evidence to prove the terms of such document is excluded. The Supreme Court in Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC 2418) observed that wherever written instruments are appointed by law or by the contract of the parties, any other evidence is excluded to prove the contents of those instruments. Section 95 BSA (Section 92 IEA) excludes oral evidence that would contradict, vary, add to, or subtract from the terms of a written document. However, Section 95 BSA provides six exceptions including: facts showing the document is invalid (fraud, misrepresentation, failure of consideration), a separate oral agreement constituting a condition precedent, a subsequent oral agreement rescinding or varying the contract, and usage or custom that gives special meaning to words. These exceptions recognise that while written documents should be enforced as written, certain contextual facts are necessary for complete justice.

Question 31EasyOral Evidence and Exclusion by Documentary Evidence - Sections 50, 94-95 BSA

Section 50 BSA 2023 requires oral evidence to be direct, meaning:

  1. A

    The witness must testify directly to the court without lawyers

  2. B

    If the fact could be seen, the witness must say he saw it; if heard, he must say he heard it.

  3. C

    Only eye-witnesses can testify

  4. D

    Direct oral evidence requires written confirmation

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. If the fact could be seen, the witness must say he saw it; if heard, he must say he heard it.

The passage states: 'Section 50 BSA...requires that oral evidence must in all cases be direct: if the fact was seen, the witness must have seen it; if it was heard, the witness must have heard it.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 50, 94-95 / Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC)

Question 32EasyOral Evidence and Exclusion by Documentary Evidence - Sections 50, 94-95 BSA

Section 94 BSA 2023 provides that when the terms of a contract have been reduced to writing, those terms:

  1. A

    Can always be supplemented by oral evidence if both parties agree

  2. B

    Can only be proved by the document itself or permissible secondary evidence; oral evidence to prove the terms is excluded

  3. C

    Require both oral and documentary evidence for full proof

  4. D

    Can be varied by oral evidence if the variation was agreed upon

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Can only be proved by the document itself or permissible secondary evidence; oral evidence to prove the terms is excluded

The passage states: 'Section 94 BSA...those terms can only be proved by the document itself or by permissible secondary evidence. Oral evidence to prove the terms of such document is excluded.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 50, 94-95 / Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC)

Question 33MediumOral Evidence and Exclusion by Documentary Evidence - Sections 50, 94-95 BSA

Section 95 BSA 2023 provides six exceptions permitting oral evidence about written documents. Which of the following is one such exception mentioned in the passage?

  1. A

    The document was notarised by a foreign notary

  2. B

    Facts showing the document is invalid (fraud, misrepresentation, failure of consideration), or a separate oral agreement constituting a condition precedent

  3. C

    The document was written in a foreign language

  4. D

    The value of the contract exceeds a specified threshold

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Facts showing the document is invalid (fraud, misrepresentation, failure of consideration), or a separate oral agreement constituting a condition precedent

The passage states six exceptions including: 'facts showing the document is invalid (fraud, misrepresentation, failure of consideration), a separate oral agreement constituting a condition precedent.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 50, 94-95 / Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC)

Question 34MediumOral Evidence and Exclusion by Documentary Evidence - Sections 50, 94-95 BSA

The Supreme Court in Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC 2418) observed that:

  1. A

    Oral evidence is always more reliable than written documents

  2. B

    Wherever written instruments are appointed by law or by contract, any other evidence is excluded to prove the contents of those instruments; the Best Evidence Rule applies

  3. C

    Written contracts can always be supplemented by oral evidence

  4. D

    The Best Evidence Rule applies only to government documents

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Wherever written instruments are appointed by law or by contract, any other evidence is excluded to prove the contents of those instruments; the Best Evidence Rule applies

The passage states: 'The Supreme Court in Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC 2418) observed that wherever written instruments are appointed by law or by the contract of the parties, any other evidence is excluded to prove the contents of those instruments.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 50, 94-95 / Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC)

Question 35HardOral Evidence and Exclusion by Documentary Evidence - Sections 50, 94-95 BSA

The six exceptions in Section 95 BSA are justified by the passage as reflecting the principle that:

  1. A

    Written documents should always be ignored when parties dispute them

  2. B

    While written documents should be enforced as written, certain contextual facts are necessary for complete justice; the exceptions allow parties to challenge the document's validity or prove surrounding context

  3. C

    Oral evidence is always superior to documentary evidence

  4. D

    Contracts should be interpreted without regard to written terms

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. While written documents should be enforced as written, certain contextual facts are necessary for complete justice; the exceptions allow parties to challenge the document's validity or prove surrounding context

The passage states: 'These exceptions recognise that while written documents should be enforced as written, certain contextual facts are necessary for complete justice.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 50, 94-95 / Roop Kumar v. Mohan Thedani (AIR 2003 SC)

Passage or principleBSA 2023 Sections 121-123 / Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC) / M.C. Verghese

The doctrine of estoppel under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 operates as a rule of evidence that prevents a party from contradicting a previous representation on which another party has relied to their detriment. Section 121 BSA (corresponding to Section 115 IEA) provides that when one person by his declaration, act, or omission intentionally caused or permitted another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon that belief, neither that person nor his representative shall be allowed to deny the truth of that thing in any suit or proceeding. This is the general estoppel by representation. Section 122 BSA provides for tenant-landlord estoppel: a tenant cannot dispute the title of his landlord during the continuance of the tenancy. Section 123 BSA provides for estoppel of an acceptor of a bill of exchange: the acceptor cannot deny the drawer's authority to draw and endorse the bill. Beyond the statutory provisions, Indian courts have recognised the doctrine of promissory estoppel as an equitable principle. In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of U.P. (AIR 1979 SC 621), the Supreme Court held that promissory estoppel applies even against the government: if the government makes a clear and unequivocal promise, and the promisee relies on it and alters his position, the government is bound to keep its promise. The three elements are: a clear representation or promise; the promisee's reliance on it; and alteration of position. The doctrine does not apply where the government invokes overriding considerations of public interest, but the government must establish that public interest was genuinely engaged. M.C. Verghese v. T.J. Ponnan (AIR 1970 SC 1876) clarified that the privilege of non-disclosure for marital communications under Section 128 BSA continues even after the marriage ends.

Question 36EasyEstoppel - Sections 121-123 BSA 2023 and Promissory Estoppel

Section 121 BSA 2023 on estoppel applies when:

  1. A

    Any party makes any statement in court

  2. B

    Estoppel applies where representation causes reliance on a believed fact.

  3. C

    A person makes a written contract with another

  4. D

    Two parties make inconsistent statements about the same fact

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Estoppel applies where representation causes reliance on a believed fact.

The passage states: 'Section 121 BSA...provides that when one person by his declaration, act, or omission intentionally caused or permitted another to believe a thing to be true and to act upon that belief, neither that person nor his representative shall be allowed to deny the truth of that thing.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 121-123 / Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 37EasyEstoppel - Sections 121-123 BSA 2023 and Promissory Estoppel

Section 122 BSA provides for tenant-landlord estoppel, meaning:

  1. A

    Landlords cannot demand rent during litigation

  2. B

    A tenant cannot dispute the title of his landlord during the continuance of the tenancy

  3. C

    Tenants are bound by any amount the landlord claims

  4. D

    Landlords cannot sell property occupied by tenants

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A tenant cannot dispute the title of his landlord during the continuance of the tenancy

The passage states: 'Section 122 BSA provides for tenant-landlord estoppel: a tenant cannot dispute the title of his landlord during the continuance of the tenancy.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 121-123 / Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 38MediumEstoppel - Sections 121-123 BSA 2023 and Promissory Estoppel

In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC 621), the Supreme Court held that promissory estoppel:

  1. A

    Cannot apply against the government

  2. B

    Promissory estoppel may bind government on a clear promise acted upon by the promisee.

  3. C

    Only applies to private commercial transactions

  4. D

    Requires a written promise to be enforceable

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Promissory estoppel may bind government on a clear promise acted upon by the promisee.

The passage states: 'In Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of U.P. (AIR 1979 SC 621), the Supreme Court held that promissory estoppel applies even against the government.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 121-123 / Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 39MediumEstoppel - Sections 121-123 BSA 2023 and Promissory Estoppel

The three elements of promissory estoppel as described in the passage are:

  1. A

    Offer, acceptance, and consideration

  2. B

    A clear representation or promise; the promisee's reliance on it.

  3. C

    Writing, signature, and notarisation

  4. D

    Public announcement, newspaper publication, and government gazette notification

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A clear representation or promise; the promisee's reliance on it.

The passage states: 'The three elements are: a clear representation or promise; the promisee's reliance on it; and alteration of position.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 121-123 / Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 40HardEstoppel - Sections 121-123 BSA 2023 and Promissory Estoppel

When can the government escape promissory estoppel according to the passage?

  1. A

    By claiming parliamentary privilege

  2. B

    Only on genuine overriding public interest.

  3. C

    By paying compensation to the promisee

  4. D

    By amending the relevant law

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Only on genuine overriding public interest.

The passage states: 'The doctrine does not apply where the government invokes overriding considerations of public interest, but the government must establish that public interest was genuinely engaged.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 121-123 / Motilal Padampat Sugar Mills v. State of UP (AIR 1979 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Passage or principleBSA 2023 Sections 127-134 / State of UP v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC) / M.C. Verghese

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 recognises several categories of privileged communications that are protected from compelled disclosure in judicial proceedings. Section 132 BSA (corresponding to Section 126 IEA) provides for legal professional privilege: an advocate is forbidden from disclosing without the client's consent any communication made to him in the course of his professional employment, the contents of any document seen in that employment, or any advice given. This privilege belongs to the client and continues even after the professional relationship ends. The privilege does not apply when the communication was made for an unlawful purpose. Section 128 BSA (Section 122 IEA) provides for marital communications privilege: a spouse cannot be compelled to and is not even permitted to disclose communications made by the other spouse during marriage; as held in M.C. Verghese v. T.J. Ponnan (AIR 1970 SC 1876), this privilege continues even after the marriage is dissolved. Section 129 BSA (Section 123 IEA) provides for state documents privilege: no one may give evidence derived from unpublished official records relating to affairs of State without the permission of the head of the relevant department, who may withhold permission if disclosure would injure public interest. In State of U.P. v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC 865), the Supreme Court held that courts have the power to inspect such documents to determine if the claim of privilege is justified. Section 130 BSA (Section 124 IEA) provides for official communications privilege: a public officer need not disclose communications made to him in official confidence where he considers that public interest would suffer by the disclosure.

Question 41EasyPrivilege under BSA 2023 - Professional Communications and State Privilege

Under Section 132 BSA 2023 (legal professional privilege), the privilege from disclosure:

  1. A

    Belongs to the advocate who can waive it independently

  2. B

    Belongs to the client and the advocate cannot disclose without the client'S consent; it continues even after the professional relationship ends

  3. C

    Expires at the end of the case

  4. D

    Only covers written communications, not oral advice

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Belongs to the client and the advocate cannot disclose without the client'S consent; it continues even after the professional relationship ends

The passage states: 'This privilege belongs to the client and continues even after the professional relationship ends.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 127-134 / State of UP v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 42MediumPrivilege under BSA 2023 - Professional Communications and State Privilege

Section 128 BSA on marital communications privilege provides that a spouse:

  1. A

    Can be compelled to testify about marital communications if it serves justice

  2. B

    A spouse cannot be compelled or permitted to disclose protected marital communications.

  3. C

    Can choose whether to disclose marital communications

  4. D

    Must disclose communications if they relate to a crime

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A spouse cannot be compelled or permitted to disclose protected marital communications.

The passage states: 'a spouse cannot be compelled to and is not even permitted to disclose communications made by the other spouse during marriage; as held in M.C. Verghese v. T.J. Ponnan...this privilege continues even after the marriage is dissolved.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 127-134 / State of UP v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 43HardPrivilege under BSA 2023 - Professional Communications and State Privilege

In State of U.P. v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC 865), the Supreme Court held regarding Section 129 BSA state documents privilege:

  1. A

    Courts must always accept the claim of privilege without question

  2. B

    Courts have the power to inspect such documents to determine if the claim of privilege is justified; the claim cannot be made blindly

  3. C

    State documents are always privileged without exception

  4. D

    Only the Supreme Court can inspect privileged state documents

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Courts have the power to inspect such documents to determine if the claim of privilege is justified; the claim cannot be made blindly

The passage states: 'In State of U.P. v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC 865), the Supreme Court held that courts have the power to inspect such documents to determine if the claim of privilege is justified.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 127-134 / State of UP v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 44MediumPrivilege under BSA 2023 - Professional Communications and State Privilege

Legal professional privilege under Section 132 BSA does not apply when:

  1. A

    The client is accused of a criminal offence

  2. B

    The communication was made for an unlawful purpose (to facilitate a crime or fraud)

  3. C

    The client refuses to pay the advocate's fees

  4. D

    The litigation has concluded

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The communication was made for an unlawful purpose (to facilitate a crime or fraud)

The passage states: 'The privilege does not apply when the communication was made for an unlawful purpose.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 127-134 / State of UP v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Question 45HardPrivilege under BSA 2023 - Professional Communications and State Privilege

Section 130 BSA differs from Section 129 BSA in that Section 130 BSA covers:

  1. A

    Only records about national security

  2. B

    Official confidences may be withheld where disclosure harms public interest.

  3. C

    Only written records of a public officer

  4. D

    Only records of Central Government officers

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Official confidences may be withheld where disclosure harms public interest.

The passage states: 'Section 130 BSA (Section 124 IEA) provides for official communications privilege: a public officer need not disclose communications made to him in official confidence where he considers that public interest would suffer by the disclosure.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 127-134 / State of UP v. Raj Narain (AIR 1975 SC) / M.C. Verghese

Passage or principleBSA 2023 Sections 115-120 / Dipanwita Roy v. Ronobroto Roy (2015) / Dukhtar Jahan

Sections 115 to 120 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 create specific presumptions that shift evidentiary burdens in defined circumstances. Section 116 BSA (Section 112 IEA) creates a conclusive presumption of legitimacy: the birth of a child during a valid marriage is conclusive proof that the husband is the father, rebuttable only by showing that the parties had no access to each other when the child could have been conceived. In Dukhtar Jahan v. Mohammed Farooq (1987), the Supreme Court held that courts should be inclined to uphold legitimacy unless the facts are so compelling as to necessarily show the child could not have been begotten to the husband. In Dipanwita Roy v. Ronobroto Roy (2015) 1 SCC 365, the Supreme Court held that DNA test results can be used to rebut this presumption, as they represent a scientifically accurate method of determining paternity not available when the original law was enacted. Section 120 BSA (Section 114A IEA) creates a mandatory presumption in prosecutions for rape under Section 64(2) BNS: where sexual intercourse by the accused is proved, consent is in issue, and the woman states in evidence that she did not consent, the court shall presume absence of consent. Section 117 BSA (Section 113A IEA) provides that the court may presume abetment of suicide if the woman committed suicide within seven years of marriage and was subjected to cruelty by her husband or relatives. Section 118 BSA (Section 113B IEA) creates a mandatory presumption in dowry death cases when cruelty in connection with dowry demand before death is shown.

Question 46EasyPresumptions under BSA 2023 - Sections 115-120

Section 116 BSA 2023 creates which type of presumption about a child born during marriage?

  1. A

    A discretionary presumption that can be easily rebutted

  2. B

    Legitimacy is rebutted only by proving non-access at the possible time of conception.

  3. C

    A presumption that requires DNA testing as a precondition

  4. D

    A presumption that applies only to registered marriages

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Legitimacy is rebutted only by proving non-access at the possible time of conception.

The passage states: 'Section 116 BSA...creates a conclusive presumption of legitimacy: the birth of a child during a valid marriage is conclusive proof that the husband is the father, rebuttable only by showing that the parties had no access to each other when the child could have been conceived.'

Source note: BSA 2023 Sections 115-120 / Dipanwita Roy v. Ronobroto Roy (2015) / Dukhtar Jahan