Constitutional Law MCQs for CLAT PG, Page 2

CLAT PG Constitutional Law questions 26-50 of 100, with answer keys and explanations covering fundamental rights, federalism, Parliament, constitutional bodies, judicial review, emergency powers, and writs.

100 questions20 topics26-50 on this page

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Revise core LLB subjects through CLAT PG MCQs, passage-led questions, answer keys, explanations, statutes, and exam-oriented legal principles.

  • Anti-Defection Law - Tenth Schedule5
  • Article 14 - Right to Equality5
  • Article 19 - Freedom of Speech and Expression5
  • Article 21 and Maneka Gandhi5
  • Basic Structure Doctrine5
  • Constitutional Amendments - Article 3685
  • Directive Principles of State Policy5
  • Doctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism5
  • Freedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices5
  • Judicial Independence and Collegium System5
  • Parliamentary Privileges - Article 1055
  • Preamble and Constitutional Vision5
  • President's Rule - Article 356 and S.R. Bommai5
  • Reservation - Article 16 and Indra Sawhney5
  • Reservation - Indra Sawhney v. Union of India (Mandal Case)5
  • Right to Privacy - Article 21 and Technology5
  • Right to Privacy - Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017)5
  • Secularism in the Indian Constitution5
  • Separation of Powers and Judicial Independence5
  • Writs and Article 32 - Constitutional Remedies5
Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.8 / Shankari Prasad, Golaknath, Kesavananda

The constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution is contained in Article 368. The scope and limits of this power have been the subject of some of the most significant constitutional adjudication in India. In Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India (1951), the Supreme Court upheld the First Constitutional Amendment and held that the word 'law' in Article 13, which prevents the State from making laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights, does not include a constitutional amendment enacted under Article 368. Parliament could therefore amend Fundamental Rights. This position was reversed in Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967), where the Supreme Court by a slender majority of 6:5 held that constitutional amendments are 'law' within the meaning of Article 13 and that Parliament has no power to abridge or take away Fundamental Rights through the amendment process. Parliament responded by enacting the 24th Constitutional Amendment, which inserted specific provisions in Articles 13 and 368 to negate the effect of Golaknath and to expressly confer on Parliament the power to amend the Constitution including any provision of Part III. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973), a thirteen-judge bench upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment and overruled Golaknath, holding that Parliament does have the power to amend Fundamental Rights. However, the Court simultaneously introduced the doctrine of basic structure as an overarching limitation, holding that even the widest amending power cannot be used to damage or destroy the basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution. In this manner the Court crafted a middle path between unlimited parliamentary sovereignty and absolute constitutional rigidity.

Question 26EasyConstitutional Amendments - Article 368

In Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India (1951), the Supreme Court held that the word 'law' in Article 13:

  1. A

    Includes constitutional amendments, limiting Parliament's power to abridge FRs

  2. B

    Does not include constitutional amendments, so Parliament could amend FRs

  3. C

    Only refers to pre-constitutional laws

  4. D

    Applies only to executive actions, not legislative acts

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Does not include constitutional amendments, so Parliament could amend FRs

The passage states the Court held 'the word law in Article 13...does not include a constitutional amendment...Parliament could therefore amend Fundamental Rights.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.8 / Shankari Prasad, Golaknath, Kesavananda

Question 27MediumConstitutional Amendments - Article 368

In Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (1967), what was the ratio of the majority decision?

  1. A

    9:4

  2. B

    7:6

  3. C

    6:5

  4. D

    8:5

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. 6:5

The passage states 'Golak Nath...where the Supreme Court by a slender majority of 6:5 held...'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.8 / Shankari Prasad, Golaknath, Kesavananda

Question 28EasyConstitutional Amendments - Article 368

The 24th Constitutional Amendment was enacted by Parliament to:

  1. A

    Introduce reservation in promotions

  2. B

    Negate the effect of Golaknath and expressly confer power to amend any provision including Part III

  3. C

    Restrict judicial review of constitutional amendments

  4. D

    Add Fundamental Duties to the Constitution

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Negate the effect of Golaknath and expressly confer power to amend any provision including Part III

The passage states the 24th Amendment was to 'negate the effect of Golaknath and to expressly confer on Parliament the power to amend the Constitution including any provision of Part III.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.8 / Shankari Prasad, Golaknath, Kesavananda

Question 29MediumConstitutional Amendments - Article 368

In Kesavananda Bharati, what limitation did the Court impose even after upholding Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights?

  1. A

    Amendments must be ratified by all State Legislatures

  2. B

    The amending power cannot be used to damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution

  3. C

    Amendments to Part III require a special majority of three-fourths

  4. D

    All amendments must receive Presidential assent within 30 days

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The amending power cannot be used to damage or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution

The passage states 'the Court simultaneously introduced the doctrine of basic structure...even the widest amending power cannot be used to damage or destroy the basic structure.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.8 / Shankari Prasad, Golaknath, Kesavananda

Question 30HardConstitutional Amendments - Article 368

According to the passage, the Kesavananda Bharati judgment is best described as crafting:

  1. A

    Absolute parliamentary sovereignty to amend any part of the Constitution

  2. B

    Complete constitutional rigidity protecting every provision from change

  3. C

    A middle path between unlimited parliamentary sovereignty and absolute constitutional rigidity

  4. D

    A transfer of amending power from Parliament to the judiciary

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A middle path between unlimited parliamentary sovereignty and absolute constitutional rigidity

The passage states: 'In this manner the Court crafted a middle path between unlimited parliamentary sovereignty and absolute constitutional rigidity.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.8 / Shankari Prasad, Golaknath, Kesavananda

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.5 / Champakam Dorairajan, Minerva Mills

Part IV of the Constitution, comprising Articles 36 to 51, contains the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 37 expressly states that the provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court, but the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. The non-justiciable character of DPSPs distinguishes them from the enforceable Fundamental Rights in Part III. In State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court held that in the event of a conflict between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs, Fundamental Rights would prevail, as DPSPs are expressly made non-justiciable. This led Parliament to introduce constitutional amendments - particularly Article 31A, 31B (with the Ninth Schedule) and ultimately Article 31C - to give primacy to laws implementing DPSPs over certain Fundamental Rights. However, in Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court held that the 42nd Amendment had gone too far in giving blanket immunity to all laws implementing any DPSP from challenge on grounds of Articles 14 and 19. The Court held that the balance between Part III and Part IV is itself part of the basic structure of the Constitution. Neither Fundamental Rights nor Directive Principles can be made absolutely supreme over the other; they are complementary and must be read harmoniously to further the constitutional vision of a just social order. The Preamble's ideals of justice - social, economic and political - can only be achieved through this harmonious interaction.

Question 31EasyDirective Principles of State Policy

Under Article 37, Directive Principles of State Policy are described as:

  1. A

    Justiciable and enforceable by courts

  2. B

    Fundamental in governance but not enforceable by courts

  3. C

    Equivalent to Fundamental Rights in enforceability

  4. D

    Applicable only to the Union and not State governments

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Fundamental in governance but not enforceable by courts

The passage states: 'the principles therein laid down are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country...but...not enforceable by any court.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Champakam Dorairajan, Minerva Mills

Question 32EasyDirective Principles of State Policy

In Champakam Dorairajan (1951), the Supreme Court held that in a conflict between FRs and DPSPs:

  1. A

    DPSPs would prevail as they represent social welfare goals

  2. B

    Fundamental Rights would prevail as DPSPs are non-justiciable

  3. C

    Courts would balance both on a case-by-case basis

  4. D

    The President would decide which prevails

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Fundamental Rights would prevail as DPSPs are non-justiciable

The passage states 'Fundamental Rights would prevail, as DPSPs are expressly made non-justiciable.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Champakam Dorairajan, Minerva Mills

Question 33MediumDirective Principles of State Policy

According to the passage, what did Parliament introduce in response to the Champakam Dorairajan ruling?

  1. A

    A new set of Fundamental Rights covering economic rights

  2. B

    Constitutional amendments including Articles 31A, 31B and 31C to give primacy to DPSP-implementing laws

  3. C

    A law abolishing the doctrine of judicial review

  4. D

    A constitutional amendment making all DPSPs justiciable

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Constitutional amendments including Articles 31A, 31B and 31C to give primacy to DPSP-implementing laws

The passage states Parliament introduced 'constitutional amendments - particularly Article 31A, 31B...and ultimately Article 31C - to give primacy to laws implementing DPSPs.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Champakam Dorairajan, Minerva Mills

Question 34MediumDirective Principles of State Policy

In Minerva Mills, the Supreme Court held that the balance between Part III and Part IV:

  1. A

    Must always favour Fundamental Rights as they are justiciable

  2. B

    Is itself part of the basic structure of the Constitution

  3. C

    Has been resolved in favour of DPSPs by the 42nd Amendment

  4. D

    Is a political question not amenable to judicial review

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Is itself part of the basic structure of the Constitution

The passage states 'the Court held that the balance between Part III and Part IV is itself part of the basic structure of the Constitution.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Champakam Dorairajan, Minerva Mills

Question 35HardDirective Principles of State Policy

Which of the following best captures the relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs as described in the passage after Minerva Mills?

  1. A

    Fundamental Rights are always superior to DPSPs

  2. B

    DPSPs override Fundamental Rights when they serve public welfare

  3. C

    Neither can be made absolutely supreme; they are complementary and must be read harmoniously

  4. D

    Courts have no role in determining the relationship between the two Parts

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Neither can be made absolutely supreme; they are complementary and must be read harmoniously

The passage states: 'Neither Fundamental Rights nor Directive Principles can be made absolutely supreme over the other; they are complementary and must be read harmoniously.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Champakam Dorairajan, Minerva Mills

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.7 / Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee case

The Indian Constitution distributes legislative powers between Parliament and State Legislatures through three lists in the Seventh Schedule: List I (Union List), List II (State List), and List III (Concurrent List). In practice, the boundaries between these lists are not always clear, and a law enacted by one legislature may incidentally touch upon a subject falling within the competence of the other. To resolve such conflicts without invalidating laws unnecessarily, Indian courts have evolved the doctrine of pith and substance. According to this doctrine, when a law is challenged on the ground that the legislature which enacted it lacks competence because the subject matter belongs to the list of another legislature, courts examine what is the 'pith' - the true nature and character - and the 'substance' - the dominant purpose - of the legislation. If, viewed in its entirety, the law substantially and predominantly deals with a subject within the competent legislature's list, it will be upheld even if it incidentally encroaches upon a matter in another list. In State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara (1951), the Bombay Prohibition Act was challenged on the ground that it incidentally affected import of liquor, which is a Union subject. The Supreme Court applied the doctrine and upheld the Act, holding that the pith and substance of the Act fell within the State List (public health, intoxicating liquors) even though it incidentally touched upon the Union subject of import. The doctrine ensures that legislative overlap is managed without paralysing the federal structure by invalidating genuinely competent legislation on account of incidental effects.

Question 36EasyDoctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism

According to the passage, the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution distributes legislative powers through:

  1. A

    Two lists - Union and State Lists only

  2. B

    Four lists including a Special Powers List

  3. C

    Three lists - Union List, State List and Concurrent List

  4. D

    A single unified legislative list

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Three lists - Union List, State List and Concurrent List

The passage states 'three lists in the Seventh Schedule: List I (Union List), List II (State List), and List III (Concurrent List).'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.7 / Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee case

Question 37EasyDoctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism

Under the doctrine of pith and substance, 'pith' refers to:

  1. A

    The incidental effects of a legislation on other subjects

  2. B

    The true nature and character of the legislation

  3. C

    The penalty clauses in a statute

  4. D

    The legislative history of the law

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The true nature and character of the legislation

The passage defines pith as 'the true nature and character' of the legislation.

Source note: MP Jain Ch.7 / Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee case

Question 38MediumDoctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism

In State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara, the Bombay Prohibition Act was challenged because it:

  1. A

    Was not passed by the required special majority

  2. B

    Incidentally affected import of liquor - a Union subject

  3. C

    Violated Article 19(1)(g) - the right to trade

  4. D

    Conflicted with a Central Act on the same subject

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Incidentally affected import of liquor - a Union subject

The passage states the Act 'incidentally affected import of liquor, which is a Union subject.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.7 / Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee case

Question 39MediumDoctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism

The Supreme Court in F.N. Balsara upheld the Bombay Prohibition Act because:

  1. A

    Import of liquor was a State subject

  2. B

    The pith and substance of the Act fell within the State List even though it incidentally touched upon a Union subject

  3. C

    Parliament had expressly permitted States to regulate imports

  4. D

    The 42nd Amendment gave States concurrent jurisdiction over imports

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The pith and substance of the Act fell within the State List even though it incidentally touched upon a Union subject

The passage states 'the pith and substance of the Act fell within the State List...even though it incidentally touched upon the Union subject of import.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.7 / Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee case

Question 40HardDoctrine of Pith and Substance - Federalism

What is the purpose of the doctrine of pith and substance as described in the passage?

  1. A

    To declare all overlapping legislation unconstitutional

  2. B

    To give Parliament supremacy over State Legislatures in all legislative matters

  3. C

    To manage legislative overlap without invalidating genuinely competent legislation on account of incidental effects

  4. D

    To allow the Supreme Court to legislate on matters not covered by any list

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. To manage legislative overlap without invalidating genuinely competent legislation on account of incidental effects

The passage states the doctrine 'ensures that legislative overlap is managed without paralysing the federal structure by invalidating genuinely competent legislation on account of incidental effects.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.7 / Prafulla Kumar Mukherjee case

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.3 / Shirur Math case (1954) / Sabarimala (2018)

Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution protect freedom of religion and the right of religious denominations to manage their affairs. Article 25(1) gives every person the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions of Part III. Article 26 gives every religious denomination the right to manage its own affairs in matters of religion. In Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar (1954) - the Shirur Math case - the Supreme Court introduced the 'essential religious practices' doctrine: the protection under Articles 25 and 26 extends only to those religious practices that are 'essential' or 'integral' to the religion. Courts are required to determine, by examining the tenets and practices of the religion, whether a particular practice is essential or merely peripheral. Non-essential practices can be regulated by the State without violating constitutional protection. The Shirur Math case also distinguished between matters of religion - which are fully protected - and secular or administrative activities associated with religion, such as property management, which are subject to State regulation. In Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala (2018) - the Sabarimala case - the Supreme Court by a 4:1 majority applied the essential practices doctrine to hold that the exclusion of women between 10 and 50 years from the Sabarimala temple was not an essential religious practice and therefore could not claim constitutional protection under Article 26. The majority held that the practice violated women's right to worship and their rights to equality and dignity under Articles 14, 15, 17 and 21.

Question 41EasyFreedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices

The 'essential religious practices' doctrine was first introduced in which case?

  1. A

    Sabarimala case (2018)

  2. B

    S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)

  3. C

    Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar - the Shirur Math case (1954)

  4. D

    Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain (1975)

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar - the Shirur Math case (1954)

The passage states: 'In Commissioner, Hindu Religious Endowments v. Sri Lakshmindra Thirtha Swamiar (1954) - the Shirur Math case - the Supreme Court introduced the essential religious practices doctrine.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Shirur Math case (1954) / Sabarimala (2018)

Question 42EasyFreedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices

According to the essential practices doctrine as described in the passage, the protection under Articles 25-26 extends to:

  1. A

    All religious practices regardless of their importance to the religion

  2. B

    Only those religious practices that are 'essential' or 'integral' to the religion - non-essential practices can be regulated

  3. C

    All practices that any member of the religion considers important

  4. D

    Only practices mentioned in ancient religious texts

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Only those religious practices that are 'essential' or 'integral' to the religion - non-essential practices can be regulated

The passage states: 'the protection under Articles 25 and 26 extends only to those religious practices that are essential or integral to the religion...Non-essential practices can be regulated by the State without violating constitutional protection.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Shirur Math case (1954) / Sabarimala (2018)

Question 43MediumFreedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices

The Shirur Math case distinguished between two categories. Which of the following can be regulated by the State?

  1. A

    Matters of religion - internal spiritual practices

  2. B

    Secular or administrative activities associated with religion, such as property management

  3. C

    Beliefs held by the religion's founder

  4. D

    Daily prayers of members of the denomination

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Secular or administrative activities associated with religion, such as property management

The passage states: 'the Shirur Math case also distinguished between matters of religion - which are fully protected - and secular or administrative activities associated with religion, such as property management, which are subject to State regulation.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Shirur Math case (1954) / Sabarimala (2018)

Question 44MediumFreedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices

In the Sabarimala case (2018), the Supreme Court majority held that the exclusion of women aged 10-50 from the Sabarimala temple:

  1. A

    Was a valid essential religious practice protected under Article 26

  2. B

    Was not an essential religious practice and violated women's rights under Articles 14, 15, 17 and 21

  3. C

    Was a valid restriction justified by public order

  4. D

    Was a matter solely within the discretion of the religious denomination

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Was not an essential religious practice and violated women's rights under Articles 14, 15, 17 and 21

The passage states the majority held 'the exclusion of women between 10 and 50 years from the Sabarimala temple was not an essential religious practice and therefore could not claim constitutional protection under Article 26...the practice violated women's right to worship and their rights to equality and dignity under Articles 14, 15, 17 and 21.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Shirur Math case (1954) / Sabarimala (2018)

Question 45HardFreedom of Religion - Articles 25-26 and Essential Practices

Article 25(1) grants the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion. According to the passage, this right is subject to:

  1. A

    No restrictions whatsoever

  2. B

    Public order, morality, health and other provisions of Part III of the Constitution

  3. C

    Only public order restrictions

  4. D

    Only Parliamentary legislation

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Public order, morality, health and other provisions of Part III of the Constitution

The passage states Article 25(1) grants the right 'subject to public order, morality, health and other provisions of Part III.' The 'other provisions of Part III' includes Articles 14, 15, 17 etc. - meaning religious practices that violate equality or untouchability provisions cannot claim protection.

Source note: MP Jain Ch.3 / Shirur Math case (1954) / Sabarimala (2018)

Passage or principleMP Jain Ch.5 / Second Judges Case (1993) / Third Judges Case (1998)

The independence of the judiciary is recognised as a basic feature of the Constitution. Articles 124 to 147 of the Constitution deal with the Supreme Court, while Articles 214 to 231 deal with High Courts. The Constitution provides several structural safeguards for judicial independence - security of tenure, fixed service conditions that cannot be varied to a judge's disadvantage, charging salaries to the Consolidated Fund (thus not subject to Parliamentary vote), and a difficult process of removal only through impeachment. The appointment of judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts is provided under Article 124(2) and Article 217 respectively. Both Articles require the President to consult with the Chief Justice of India and such other judges as he deems necessary. The interpretation of this 'consultation' requirement became the subject of significant constitutional litigation. In S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (First Judges Case, 1981), the Supreme Court held that consultation did not mean concurrence and that the executive had the primacy in appointments. This decision was overruled in Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India (Second Judges Case, 1993), where a nine-judge bench held that in matters of appointment and transfer of judges, the opinion of the Chief Justice of India and the collegium of the two senior-most judges of the Supreme Court would have primacy over the executive. The collegium system was further elaborated in the Third Judges Case (1998) where the Court held that the collegium for Supreme Court appointments would consist of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court. The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), created by the 99th Constitutional Amendment to replace the collegium, was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 as violating the basic structure of the Constitution by compromising judicial independence.

Question 46EasyJudicial Independence and Collegium System

The independence of the judiciary is described in the passage as:

  1. A

    A directive principle in Part IV

  2. B

    A statutory right under the Judges Act

  3. C

    A basic feature of the Constitution

  4. D

    A conventional practice without constitutional basis

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A basic feature of the Constitution

The passage states 'The independence of the judiciary is recognised as a basic feature of the Constitution.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Second Judges Case (1993) / Third Judges Case (1998)

Question 47MediumJudicial Independence and Collegium System

In S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (First Judges Case, 1981), the Supreme Court held that 'consultation' with the Chief Justice:

  1. A

    Meant mandatory concurrence - the cji had primacy

  2. B

    Did not mean concurrence, and the executive had primacy in appointments

  3. C

    Was not required at all for routine appointments

  4. D

    Meant a collegium of five judges had to agree

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Did not mean concurrence, and the executive had primacy in appointments

The passage states the Court held 'consultation did not mean concurrence and that the executive had the primacy in appointments.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Second Judges Case (1993) / Third Judges Case (1998)

Question 48EasyJudicial Independence and Collegium System

The Second Judges Case (1993) overruled the First Judges Case and held that in judicial appointments:

  1. A

    The executive retains complete primacy over the judiciary

  2. B

    The opinion of the Chief Justice and collegium of two senior-most judges would have primacy over the executive

  3. C

    A joint committee of Parliament and judiciary would decide appointments

  4. D

    All appointments require confirmation by the Rajya Sabha

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The opinion of the Chief Justice and collegium of two senior-most judges would have primacy over the executive

The passage states the Second Judges Case held 'the opinion of the Chief Justice of India and the collegium of the two senior-most judges...would have primacy over the executive.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Second Judges Case (1993) / Third Judges Case (1998)

Question 49MediumJudicial Independence and Collegium System

According to the passage, in the Third Judges Case (1998), the collegium for Supreme Court appointments was fixed at:

  1. A

    The cji alone

  2. B

    Cji and two senior-most judges

  3. C

    Cji and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court

  4. D

    Cji and all sitting judges of the Supreme Court

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Cji and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court

The passage states 'the collegium for Supreme Court appointments would consist of the Chief Justice of India and the four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Second Judges Case (1993) / Third Judges Case (1998)

Question 50HardJudicial Independence and Collegium System

The National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) created by the 99th Constitutional Amendment was struck down by the Supreme Court because:

  1. A

    It was not ratified by the required number of States

  2. B

    It violated the basic structure of the Constitution by compromising judicial independence

  3. C

    It required a two-thirds majority in Parliament which was not achieved

  4. D

    It was introduced without consulting the Chief Justice of India

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. It violated the basic structure of the Constitution by compromising judicial independence

The passage states the NJAC 'was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015 as violating the basic structure of the Constitution by compromising judicial independence.'

Source note: MP Jain Ch.5 / Second Judges Case (1993) / Third Judges Case (1998)