International Law MCQs for Judiciary, Page 10

Judiciary International Law questions 212-235 of 235, with answer keys and explanations covering sources, treaties, State responsibility, recognition, jurisdiction, law of the sea, the United Nations, use of force, and human rights.

235 questions37 topics212-235 on this page

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Practice judiciary exam MCQs with answers and explanations across substantive law, procedure, evidence, constitutional law, and state judicial service subjects.

  • Air and Space Law4
  • Asylum and Extradition1
  • Diplomatic and Consular Law1
  • Diplomatic Protection2
  • Dispute Settlement3
  • Environmental Law2
  • Extradition and Asylum4
  • Human Rights9
  • Human Rights and Refugee Law3
  • Immunities12
  • International Court of Justice10
  • International Criminal Law14
  • International Economic Law5
  • International Environmental Law5
  • International Humanitarian Law9
  • International Investment Law3
  • International Law and Municipal Law2
  • International Organisations4
  • International Watercourses1
  • Jurisdiction14
  • Law of the Sea22
  • Nationality4
  • Recent Developments5
  • Recognition1
  • Recognition and Non-Recognition1
  • Refugee Law2
  • Self-Determination1
  • Sources of International Law14
  • State Recognition2
  • State Responsibility15
  • State Succession5
  • Statehood and Recognition8
  • Subjects of International Law1
  • Treatment of Aliens1
  • Treaty Law24
  • United Nations10
  • Use of Force11
Question 212MediumImmunities

Under the restrictive theory of state immunity, immunity is generally denied for:

  1. A

    Commercial or private law acts of the state

  2. B

    Purely sovereign acts

  3. C

    Diplomatic acts only

  4. D

    Legislative acts only

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Commercial or private law acts of the state

The restrictive doctrine distinguishes sovereign acts from commercial acts. Immunity is generally retained for sovereign functions but not for transactions of a commercial character, often described as acta jure gestionis.

Source note: Restrictive immunity doctrine

Question 213EasyImmunities

Diplomatic immunity is primarily designed to:

  1. A

    Benefit diplomats personally in a private sense

  2. B

    Ensure the efficient performance of diplomatic functions

  3. C

    Create criminal impunity for all acts forever

  4. D

    Replace foreign policy with court orders

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Ensure the efficient performance of diplomatic functions

Diplomatic privileges and immunities are functional in purpose. They exist to allow diplomatic missions to operate independently and effectively, not simply to confer private benefits on officials.

Source note: Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations

Question 214EasyLaw of the Sea

Under UNCLOS, the breadth of the territorial sea may extend up to:

  1. A

    12 nautical miles

  2. B

    24 nautical miles

  3. C

    50 nautical miles

  4. D

    200 nautical miles

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 12 nautical miles

The territorial sea may extend up to 12 nautical miles measured from the baseline. Within this belt, the coastal state exercises sovereignty subject to certain rights like innocent passage.

Source note: UNCLOS

Question 215EasyLaw of the Sea

The contiguous zone may extend up to:

  1. A

    24 nautical miles from the baseline

  2. B

    12 nautical miles only

  3. C

    200 nautical miles from the baseline

  4. D

    No fixed outer limit exists

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 24 nautical miles from the baseline

The contiguous zone can extend up to 24 nautical miles from the baseline. It allows a coastal state to prevent and punish infringement of customs, fiscal, immigration, and sanitary laws within its territory or territorial sea.

Source note: UNCLOS

Question 216EasyLaw of the Sea

The Exclusive Economic Zone generally extends up to:

  1. A

    200 nautical miles from the baseline

  2. B

    12 nautical miles only

  3. C

    24 nautical miles only

  4. D

    350 nautical miles automatically

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 200 nautical miles from the baseline

The EEZ can extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baseline. In that zone, the coastal state has sovereign rights mainly for exploration, exploitation, conservation, and management of natural resources.

Source note: UNCLOS

Question 217MediumLaw of the Sea

Innocent passage through the territorial sea means passage that is:

  1. A

    Continuous and expeditious and not prejudicial to the peace, good order, or security of the coastal state

  2. B

    Allowed only to warships

  3. C

    A right only for landlocked states

  4. D

    Always subject to prior judicial approval

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Continuous and expeditious and not prejudicial to the peace, good order, or security of the coastal state

Innocent passage is a qualified right of navigation. It must not threaten the coastal state's peace, good order, or security, and it must ordinarily remain continuous and expeditious.

Source note: UNCLOS

Question 218EasyTreaty Law

A treaty under the Vienna Convention is an international agreement concluded between states in written form and governed by:

  1. A

    International law

  2. B

    Private morality

  3. C

    Commercial custom only

  4. D

    Domestic tax law only

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. International law

The VCLT defines a treaty as a written international agreement between states governed by international law, whether embodied in a single instrument or more than one related instrument.

Source note: VCLT

Question 219EasyTreaty Law

The principle pacta sunt servanda means:

  1. A

    Every treaty in force is binding upon the parties and must be performed in good faith

  2. B

    A state may ignore a treaty when convenient

  3. C

    Only bilateral treaties are binding

  4. D

    Custom always overrides treaty obligations

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Every treaty in force is binding upon the parties and must be performed in good faith

Pacta sunt servanda is a foundational treaty principle. It expresses the expectation that parties will honour treaty obligations in good faith once the treaty is in force.

Source note: VCLT Article 26

Question 220MediumTreaty Law

A reservation to a treaty is generally understood as a unilateral statement whereby a state purports to:

  1. A

    Exclude or modify the legal effect of certain treaty provisions in their application to that state

  2. B

    Terminate the entire treaty for all parties

  3. C

    Create a new state

  4. D

    Appoint an arbitrator

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Exclude or modify the legal effect of certain treaty provisions in their application to that state

Reservations allow a state to accept a treaty while excluding or modifying certain provisions as they apply to that state, subject to treaty terms and compatibility with the treaty's object and purpose.

Source note: VCLT reservation doctrine

Question 221HardTreaty Law

A treaty procured by the threat or use of force in violation of the UN Charter is:

  1. A

    Void

  2. B

    Automatically enforceable

  3. C

    Only temporarily suspended

  4. D

    Binding for twenty years

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Void

The Vienna Convention treats treaties procured by unlawful coercion through threat or use of force as void. The law does not permit treaty obligations to rest on prohibited coercion.

Source note: VCLT

Question 222EasyUnited Nations

Which body bears primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security under the UN Charter?

  1. A

    Security Council

  2. B

    General Assembly

  3. C

    ECOSOC

  4. D

    Trusteeship Council

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Security Council

The Security Council has primary responsibility for international peace and security. Other organs may discuss, recommend, or assist, but the Council occupies the central institutional role.

Source note: UN Charter

Question 223MediumUnited Nations

In general, resolutions of the UN General Assembly are:

  1. A

    Usually recommendatory, though they may influence the development of law

  2. B

    Always legally binding like Security Council Chapter VII measures

  3. C

    Judicial decrees

  4. D

    Private contracts between states

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Usually recommendatory, though they may influence the development of law

General Assembly resolutions are normally not binding in the same sense as Chapter VII Security Council decisions. However, they can carry political weight and may contribute evidence toward opinio juris or broader normative development.

Source note: UN institutional practice

Question 224EasyInternational Court of Justice

In contentious cases, the ICJ can generally decide a dispute only when:

  1. A

    The states concerned have consented to its jurisdiction

  2. B

    Any private company petitions it

  3. C

    A newspaper asks for adjudication

  4. D

    The UN Secretary-General personally directs it

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. The states concerned have consented to its jurisdiction

Consent is the cornerstone of contentious ICJ jurisdiction. States may consent through compromissory clauses, special agreements, optional clause declarations, or other recognised methods.

Source note: ICJ Statute

Question 225MediumInternational Court of Justice

Advisory opinions of the ICJ are generally requested by:

  1. A

    Authorised UN organs and specialised agencies

  2. B

    Private litigants only

  3. C

    National police agencies

  4. D

    Commercial corporations only

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Authorised UN organs and specialised agencies

Advisory jurisdiction allows the ICJ to answer legal questions submitted by organs and agencies authorised under the UN system. Private parties do not directly seek advisory opinions from the Court.

Source note: ICJ advisory jurisdiction

Question 226EasyState Responsibility

For state responsibility to arise, there must generally be conduct attributable to the state and:

  1. A

    A breach of an international obligation

  2. B

    A domestic election dispute

  3. C

    A private inconvenience only

  4. D

    A treaty between individuals

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A breach of an international obligation

The basic structure of state responsibility requires attribution plus breach. Once conduct attributable to the state violates an international obligation, responsibility may arise along with duties of cessation, assurances, and reparation.

Source note: ARSIWA framework

Question 227MediumState Responsibility

The classic principle of reparation in international law seeks, so far as possible, to:

  1. A

    Wipe out all the consequences of the illegal act

  2. B

    Impose punishment only

  3. C

    Prevent all future treaties

  4. D

    Transfer sovereignty automatically

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Wipe out all the consequences of the illegal act

The Chorzow Factory principle expresses full reparation. The goal is to restore the position that would likely have existed had the wrongful act not occurred, through restitution, compensation, satisfaction, or a combination.

Source note: Factory at Chorzow principle

Question 228EasyUse of Force

Article 2(4) of the UN Charter broadly prohibits:

  1. A

    The threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state

  2. B

    Every military parade within national boundaries

  3. C

    Only economic sanctions

  4. D

    Only naval exercises on the high seas

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. The threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state

Article 2(4) is the central rule restraining force in interstate relations. It prohibits both threat and use of force except where the Charter or recognised law provides justification, such as self-defence or Security Council authorisation.

Source note: UN Charter, Article 2(4)

Question 229MediumUse of Force

Self-defence under Article 51 becomes relevant when:

  1. A

    An armed attack occurs, subject to necessity and proportionality

  2. B

    Any policy disagreement arises

  3. C

    A state wishes to expand its territory

  4. D

    A trade treaty is terminated

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. An armed attack occurs, subject to necessity and proportionality

Article 51 preserves the inherent right of self-defence if an armed attack occurs. The response must still satisfy necessity and proportionality, and the Security Council must be informed.

Source note: UN Charter, Article 51

Question 230EasyHuman Rights

The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted in:

  1. A

    1948

  2. B

    1919

  3. C

    1966

  4. D

    1989

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 1948

The UDHR was adopted by the UN General Assembly in 1948. Though not itself a treaty, it has had immense normative influence on later treaties, constitutions, and customary law debates.

Source note: UDHR

Question 231MediumHuman Rights

The principle of non-refoulement broadly prohibits a state from:

  1. A

    Returning a person to a place where they face serious risk of persecution or prohibited harm

  2. B

    Checking passports at the border

  3. C

    Refusing tourist visas in all cases

  4. D

    Applying customs law

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Returning a person to a place where they face serious risk of persecution or prohibited harm

Non-refoulement is a core protection in refugee and human rights law. It restrains return to territories where the individual faces persecution, torture, or other grave risks depending on the legal framework applied.

Source note: Refugee and human rights law

Question 232EasyInternational Humanitarian Law

The principle of distinction in international humanitarian law requires parties to distinguish between:

  1. A

    Civilians and combatants, and civilian objects and military objectives

  2. B

    Only citizens and foreigners

  3. C

    Only police and military

  4. D

    Only neutral and allied media outlets

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Civilians and combatants, and civilian objects and military objectives

Distinction is a foundational IHL principle. Parties must direct operations only against lawful military targets and must spare civilians and civilian objects from direct attack.

Source note: Customary IHL and Geneva law

Question 233HardInternational Criminal Law

Genocide requires certain prohibited acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a protected group as such. This special intent element is often called:

  1. A

    Dolus specialis

  2. B

    Mens rea minima

  3. C

    Strict liability

  4. D

    Res ipsa loquitur

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Dolus specialis

Genocide is marked by a special intent to destroy a national, ethnical, racial, or religious group, in whole or in part. That elevated intent is often referred to as dolus specialis.

Source note: Genocide Convention doctrine

Question 234HardInternational Criminal Law

Crimes against humanity generally require a prohibited act committed as part of a widespread or systematic attack directed against:

  1. A

    A civilian population

  2. B

    Only diplomats

  3. C

    Only combatants on the battlefield

  4. D

    Only foreign corporations

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A civilian population

Crimes against humanity differ from ordinary crimes because they are linked to a widespread or systematic attack directed against a civilian population, with knowledge of that attack.

Source note: Rome Statute doctrine

Question 235MediumEnvironmental Law

The no-harm principle in international environmental law broadly means that a state should not:

  1. A

    Allow activities within its jurisdiction to cause significant transboundary environmental harm

  2. B

    Use any natural resource within its own borders

  3. C

    Participate in environmental treaties

  4. D

    Regulate pollution domestically

View answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Allow activities within its jurisdiction to cause significant transboundary environmental harm

The no-harm rule limits state freedom by requiring due regard for other states and areas beyond national jurisdiction. It does not eliminate resource use, but it restricts harmful cross-border consequences.

Source note: Trail Smelter principle and later practice